What is the answers?

What type of maths is this so i can learn it and solve this

Yes, numbers are so called “infinite” to our knowledge but it’s not like you can just continuously count forever, there’s got be point where we run out of named numbers

So, a £2 item has been raised to £3, which is a 50% increase. I get three items, this equals £9. Before this increase, it would come to £6. My problem, this would mean that it would be a 33% increase, not 50%. Explain?

edit: question answered, thank you!

edit 2: guys please. My question has been answered 20 times already

When I first solved it I did v

10 + 10 = 20

20 - 10 = 10

10 x 10 = 100

When I use BIDMAS

10 x 10 = 100

100 + 10 = 110

110 - 10 = 100

I can’t figure out how the number becomes a negative. Theres no division involved. I’m r/confidentlyincorrect about the answer being 100. But even the calculator proves me wrong.

I’ve tried googling how to work it out but all the results are either people saying the answer is 10 or 90 or people who know the answer is -80 laughing at those that dont.

A circle of diameter ‘d’ is randomly placed on a square grid points of spacing ‘a’. The points within the circle are then counted.

For the general case what is the:

a) average number of points within the circle b) maximum number number of points within the circle c) the minimum number of points within the circle

This is not homework, its Age of Empires 2 maths. For a sense of scale 0 < d < 10*a.

so we know according to PEDMAS or PEMDAS or whatever we go left to right and if see multiplication or division first then we do it and then only we do addition or subtraction also left to right.

but is it just a made up rule that is agreed by all mathematicians to ensure consistency in all of maths?

can it be proved mathematically that it is the only possible rule for doing correct maths without parenthesis? and then again what is correct maths in the first place?

example: 10+5×6

if we do multiplication first then: 10+30 = 40

but if we do addition first then: 15x6 = 90

how do we know what is the correct answer?

i get it that a lot of theorems and conventions such as distributivity depend on PEDMAS or PEMDAS but we can replace them with a new one if we don't use PEDMAS or PEMDAS.

i mean we can't make 2+2=5 because it is 4. so we can prove it. but won't changing PEDMAS break maths? also when was this rule formalized can you give me some history about it?

and why did we agree to PEDMAS why not the opposite like PEASDM?

What makes it so that parentheses () come before Exponents, and those prefice multiplication and division, and those prefice addition and substraction? Who decided that? Is there a reason to it? Or did someone decide, “this is how we will do math”?

I learned it in school and it's just so much more helpful, given than you only need to know one side.

Edit: Ok WOW tysm guys I DID not know all that 😀 One of my teachers showed it to us as a way to check your answer so we didn't waste time on checking And yeah I used it a lot and when everything worked out I was like 😮😮😮 why aren't people using this more 😅 I'm in 9th and I LOVE maths to the point where I've bought Silvanus Thompson's calc book so yeah thanks for everything in the comments guys I didn't really do much research about when and where it applies I'm gonna go and decimate my teacher with all this info now 😈

A friend of mine asked me this question and I didn't have the answer. First of all, if someone would've asked me what is the definition of infinity, I couldn't give them a proper answer. But overall I think it's an interesting question if there is an answer to it. I would personally think that it is not possible to reach it, but I don't have explanation to this answer.

Do 333

times 333

+1

then you have 110890

Keep dividing that number by 3

First you get 36963.3333 which i call a mirror number

then divide that by 3 again you get 12321.11111

Then divide keep dividing that by 3 and you get some really cool patterns.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cprW0jC3BKY

Just trying to see hiw they worked it out.

BBC News - OpenAI says it cracked 90-year-old maths problem in 88 hours https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/articles/cy7zygy3rl2o

We generally consider years ending in 4–6 to be mid-decade, but what about 3? Since a decade has ten years, wouldn't a symmetrical 3–4–3 split (early: 0–2, mid: 3–6, late: 7–9) make more mathematical sense?

• Early: 0, 1, 2

• Mid: 3, 4, 5, 6

• Late: 7, 8, 9

or

• Early: 0, 1, 2, 3

• Mid: 4, 5, 6

• Late: 7, 8, 9

why is it written as undefined, and not instead just 0?

for example, if we take 0/2, that’s the same as 2 * x = 0, where x is also 0.

so, if we have 0/0, surely it would be 0 * x = 0, where x is again, 0.

i’m sure that there’s a really simple and easy way to think about this that i just haven’t noticed yet, otherwise it would just be known as 0. so why isn’t it?